PROOF OF GOD

[Peter]

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zdi8PzPWrb8

Text version comments and discussion:
http://www.islamchristianforum.com/index.php?topic=77.0

DANIEL'S "TIMES" PROPHECIES

In two different dreams the prophet Daniel wrote about the dispersion of the Jews and control of the Holy Land by a succession of Gentile kingdoms. At the beginning of one of these prophecies we are given a specific time pin:

(KJV) Daniel 10:1 In the third year of Cyrus king of Persia a thing was revealed unto Daniel, whose name was called Belteshazzar; and the thing [was] true, but the time appointed [was] long: and he understood the thing, and had understanding of the vision.

Pick up a Bible handbook, or Yahoo confirmation of a supportable date for the first year of Cyrus in Babylon at 536, making the third year of Cyrus 533 BC.

Toward the end of this prophecy we read: 

(KVJ) Daniel 12:7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which [was] upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that [it shall be] for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these [things] shall be finished.

(Tanach) Daniel 12:7 And I heard the man clad in linen, who was above the waters of the river, and he raised his right hand and his left hand to the heavens, and he swore by the Life of the world, that in the time of [two] times and a half, and when they have ended shattering the strength of the holy people, all these will end. 
chabad.org

What if these Hebrew scholars - both Messianic and non-Messianic - just happen to understand antiquated Hebrew idioms better than some gentile Christian scholars do?

Many of us are familiar with the following verse:

2 Peter 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day [is] with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.

From Strong's:
New Testament Greek Definition:
2250 hemera {hay-mer'-ah}
from (with 5610 implied) of a derivative of hemai (to sit,
akin to the base of 1476) meaning tame, i.e. gentle;
TDNT - 2:943,309; n f
AV - day 355, daily + 2596 15, time 3, not tr 2, misc 14; 389

The Koine Greek word "hemera" is an ambiguous word whose translation is determined by it's context. It is generally translated as "day" but it is also translated as "time" in 3 verses in the KJV and 12 verses in the NASB.

So, WHAT IF the Lord had meant for a "time" to be as a  thousand years?  Then:

2-1/2 "times" =  2,500  years      

consistent with "...but the time appointed [was] long..."

The third year of Cyrus was 533 BC.

2,500 - 533 BC = 1967 AD



Above we read: "...when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people..."

In the Tanach above we read: "...when they have ended shattering of the strength of the holy people..."

The 7 day war in 1967 brought an end to the scattered power and shattered strength of the "holy people" completing their possession of their land. Fulfilling the "times of the Gentiles" in Jerusalem.

Luke 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

Was this a one "time" wonder, or can we find further scriptural support for this solution?

In another of Daniel's dreams we find another time pin.

(KJV)  Daniel 7:1 In the first year of Belshazzar king of Babylon Daniel had a dream and visions of his head upon his bed: then he wrote the dream, [and] told the sum of the matters.

A supportable date for the first year of Belshazzar is 552 BC.

Later in the prophecy in verse 25 we find:

(KJV)  Daniel 7:25  And he shall speak [great] words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and the dividing of time.

2,500 - 552 BC = 1948 AD

After 2500 years of being scattered among the nations and persecuted the "holy people" were finally delivered out of their oppressor's hand. Declaring an independent state of Israel. 



Two separate problems penned long before the Christian era, that confirm each other in perfect parallel, over a period of 2500 years. 




PROOF OF GOD


Why is it that it wasn't until after the dates of 1948 and 1967 had passed, that the Lord allowed us to see the fulfillment of the sums of these simple mathematical problems, confirmed textually, in these blessed passages?


The book of Daniel draws to a close with the following verses:

Daniel 12:4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, [even] to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.

In context that knowledge regards the book of Daniel. This was followed up with a crystal clear statement:

Daniel 12:9 And he said, Go thy way, Daniel: for the words [are] closed up and sealed till the time of the end.

The Lord put a perfect seal on the book of Daniel, that could not have been unsealed, until we entered the "time of the end". Blessedly the above problems regard FULFILLED PROPHECY, not guesswork theology about some, someday.

To quote Isaac Newton -

"This Prophecy is called the Revelation, with respect to the scripture of truth, which Daniel was commanded to shut up and seal, till the time of the end. Daniel sealed it until the time of the end; and until that time comes, the Lamb is opening the seals:....
...All which is as much as to say, that these Prophecies of Daniel and John should not be understood till the time of the end: .... But in the very end, the Prophecy should be so far interpreted as to convince many."
(Part II. Observations Upon the Apocalypse of St. John. Chap 1)

Revelation 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen. 8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
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From The False Prophet
http://www.beholdthebeast.com/time_times_and_half.htm#69

"And what about the cryptic way in which those words were
used, "time, times, and the dividing of a time?" How many "times"
do we have there? As is true of English, Hebrew is full of idiomatic
language. For instance, the Hebrew idiom "cut off" means to kill.
"Ate the pieces of" means to bring malicious accusations against,
and so on. Is "time, times, and the dividing of a time" also an
idiom? Let's see if there is Scripture to support that hypothesis:

Job 33:14 For God speaketh once,  yea  twice, yet man
perceiveth it not. 

Job 40:5 Once have I spoken; but I will not answer: yea,
twice; but I will proceed no further.

Psalms 62:11 God hath spoken once; twice have I heard this;
that power belongeth unto God.

In the above, once is one, and twice is only one more, for a
total of two: 1+1=2. A singular one followed by a plural twice is
only two. In the same way, a singular time followed by a plural
times might be only two. Only two! The words are different, but
the idiomatic form is the same. If the Lord had said, "time, yea
times" we might have seen it instantly."

In other words understood something more like
"...a time OF times and an half...."