3. And you will most readily observe that the bulk of the Bible is the records of eye witnessess or ear witnesses, or people writing from hearsay.
This could not be more false.
Matthew 3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is MY BELOVED SON , in whom I am well pleased.
Mark 1:11 And there came a voice from heaven, [saying], Thou art MY BELOVED SON, in whom I am well pleased.
Luke 3:22 ...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art MY BELOVED SON; in thee I am well pleased.
2Peter 1:17 For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is MY BELOVED SON, in whom I am well pleased.
I'll pause here before preceding. Where in the Quran are there any witnesses to the voice of Mohammed's "Allah", or Gabriel, giving Mohammed a "revelation"?
This verse is one of the most famous verses quoted by Christians when they want to show that Jesus is God. First we will look at the English translation of the verse as seen in some different versions of the Bible.
Different Translations of John 1:1
King James Version
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
New International Version
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Douay-Rheims Bible
In the beginning was the Word: and the Word was with God: and the Word was God.
The above are the different translations of the concerned verse as seen in the different versions of the Bible. When moving from one translation or the other, this verse is generally translated in the same manner in all the versions. However there is a certain level of deception in these translations.
Greek Text of John 1:1
The Greek Text
??
? ?? ?
??,
?
?? ??
?
?,
? ?? ?
??.
Pay close attention to the words in the bold text. I will translate these texts below:
Transliteration, Pronunciation and Translation
* Greek word: ?
Transliteration: ho
Pronunciation: ho
Translation: the
* Greek word:
??
Transliteration: logos
Pronunciation: log'-os
Translation: word
The Mistranslated Word "
?"
In the above example, "ho" is basically an article. In the English language there are 2 articles, "the" which is a definite article and "a" which is an indefinite article. In Greek however there is only 1 article which is definite.
When "logos" is put after "ho" it becomes "the word" and with the absence of "ho", it remains as "word". However this is not where the great deception really is. The part with the great deception will come below.
Greek word:
?
Transliterated: theos
Pronounced: theh'-os
This word "theos" does not only mean "God" with a capital "G". According to the "Thayer's Greek Definitions", the first meaning of this word "theos" is written to be:
"A god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities."
One of the meanings of this word as explained by Strong's Greek Dictionary is:
"A deity."
As seen above, "theos" also means "god" i.e. any god. Greek has no such law like English where we can differentiate between "god" and "God" by the use of the capital letter or small letter. Hence to indicate whether "theos" is referring to any "god" or "God", the language uses "articles".
Depending on whether a word is the "subject" or the "direct object (accusative)" in a sentence, "?" (ho) or "
" (ton) is used respectively.
Verifying the English Translation
Do note that when "theos" is the subject, then it is written as "
?" (theos) and when it is the direct object (accusative) then it is written as "
?" (theon). In the Greek text of the verse John 1:1, it can be seen that there is an article before "
?" and the text is thus written as "
?" which is transliterated to beton theon" and should be translated as "the God" or one can even translate it as only "God". The point is that using the definite article, the word refers to God and not to the other meanings of the word "theos" i.e. "a god" or any god or goddess.
In the second instance where we see "theos", it is written as "
?" and there is no article before it. If this word would have been referring to "God", then we would have seen the article "o" (ho) before it. The article "ho" is used before the word if it is the subject. However we see that there is an absence of a definite article. Thus it means that in this place, "theos" should be translated as "god" or "a god" and not as "God".
Correct Translation
The correct translation for John 1:1 would then be as such:
In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was a god.
However we find that Christendom tries to put a veil over this problem in the Bible and all of them falsely translate the verses in a way to imply by hook or crook that the Word was also God.
Random Translations by Christendom
Not only does Christendom not translated John 1:1 properly, it is seen that they have been randomly translating the terms "ho theos" and "ton theon". For example lets take a look at 2 Corinthians 4:4.
In that verse "ho theos" is translated as "the god" with a small "g" to refer to Satan. In the same verse "ton theon" is translated as "God". This is a clear "pick and choose" tactic being practiced by Christendom.
Conclusion
The Christian world is trying hard to cover up the correct wordings of this verse. As it is the only verse in the Bible which came closest to the concept of Trinity, 1John 5:7 ("For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one"), has been detected as a fabrication and a corruption in the Bible by biblical scholars and kept out of the later versions of the Bible. This verse in truth also does not support Jesus' divinity. So what we find is that as more investigations are made into the Greek texts of the Bible, Jesus is seen to be losing the "divinity factor". However it is up to the Christian brothers and sister to realize the games that the Churches are playing with them.
It is an undeniable fact that the Bible got corrupted over time, so our brothers should leave the corrupted Old and New Testaments and come towards the uncorrupted Final Testament - Al Quran.
