You misunderstood almost everything I wrote in my posting. Not only that but the Jesus of GMark is not a divine figure. He only becomeos "divine" as the Word in GJohn.
I did not misunderstand what you wrote. The Gospel of Mark starts off by saying, "Mar 1:1 ¶ The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ,
the Son of God;
Mar 1:2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
Mar 1:3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness,
Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.
In its' first Century Jewish context we see in the FIRST verse that Mark is making a claim to Divinity for Christ. And the third verse is quoting Isaiah 40:3 which is a direct reference to Yahweh being applied to Yeshua.
My quote from Justin was to show that not everyone believed in the trinity, and it is clear that it only developed in the teachings of Tertullian. Even the epistles did not discuss the doctrine.
First, I never claimed everyone believed in the triune nature of God. I only said that the NT teaches it. It makes clear Jesus is God, the Father is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. And while these 3 are all God they are individual persons within the unity of the Godhead. Second, that quote only shows that Justin Martyr was teaching that the second person of the Trinity was present in Genesis 18.
And the Logos teaching of course is missing from the epistles and synoptics.
It isn't missing. John approached the Deity of Jesus in a different way than the synoptics and Paul. John's take is in line with Jewish thought of his day. The aramaic Targums of his day expresses much the same idea of a divine Word.
Genesis 1:27 (Targum Pseudo-Jonathon) The Word of the Lord created man
Genesis 15:6 And Abraham believed in the Word of the Lord.
Genesis 31:49 May the Word of the Lord keep watch between you and me.
Exodus 20:1 And the Word of the Lord spoke all these words.
You can compare these to the actual verses. And Paul explicitly states Jesus' divinity in several places.
Tts 2:13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of [fn]our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,
Phl 2:6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be [fn]grasped,
And you keep repeating the refrain against the words of the Sages without even understanding Hebrew, Aramaic or the way Judaism developed. I already explained that most divine teachings starting from Adam were in ORAL form. G-d decided to put a portion of the teachings in WRITTEN form at Sinai with the interpretations and methodologies and expansions explained to Moses orally, which were transmitted to the following generations.
You only believe that because the Oral tradition tells you that. Again I ask if the Oral law is so important then why isn't it mentioned ANYWHERE in the Tanach? God's only endorsement for any of His Words are those written in scripture. Just so you know you assume a lot about people you don't know. And why do I need to understand Hebrew to read and understand a passage of the Talmud that explicitly states that the Word of God can be annulled by rabbis and that it took a verse of the Torah and applied a meaning that is the exact opposite of the verse in question. How about actually explaining that before you go on about your methodologies and expansions etc.?
Anything can be open to scrutiny, but it has to be done on substantive grounds, not on the basis of personal insults.
Says the one who called me ignorant and arrogant for simply disagreeing with him. And I think it is very substantive to doubt the veracity of a supposed Oral tradition that is supposed to be so important to your religion and yet is not mentioned AT ALL in the entirety of the OT scriptures.
FURTHERMORE, the burden of proof is on those who claim that Christianity is the fulfillment of Judaism. It is an EXTRA burden of proof because if it is fulfillment, this must be demonstrated factually. And since Jesus did not fulfill the requirements of being the promised Messiah and you admit that you are still waiting for his return after TWO THOUSAND years, that is yet an additional burden of proof to provide. How can anyone even begin to claim this fulfillment if they know nothing of Hebrew or how Judaism operates?
He fulfilled the prophecies that had to be fulfilled first and assured us in the fulfilling of those prophecies of the rest He will fulfill in His second advent.
He had to atone for sin before the second Temple was destroyed just as Daniel indicated. The Glory of the Second temple was supposed to be greater than that of the First. The talmudic rabbis acknowledge that the Shekinah was not there nor the divine fire. So how was the glory of the Second temple greater? Malachi 3 said that God would visit the 2nd Temple. A prophecy fulfilled when Yeshua visited the Temple and purged it just as God said He would. So if this did not happen then God's Word was wrong and neither one of us need worry about this debate. And there is the fact that Jesus has brought BILLIONS of gentiles to the knowledge of Yahweh. He is a light to the nations just as Isaiah 49 said He would be. So given all that we know He will return in the clouds of heaven just as He said He would and the OT said He would. To answer the post you made on Isaiah 53 I would ask you in what ONE book of the Tanach includes every single detail of traditional Judaisms conception of Messiah? A point I made earlier that you disregarded. You don't seem to realize if you apply the same critical methods to the Tanach that you apply to the New Testament you would fall short to that standard. As I told you before Paul was writing to churches that had already been given the Gospel and it was not necessary or even to be expected that he would cover every single detail every time he wrote a letter. Should we discount Daniel's prophecy of the Messiah because it doesn't contain every detail about the Messiah from Isaiah? Should we discount Genesis 2 because it doesn't line up in every detail with Genesis 1? Your objections are rather superficial.